The other day, the Second Circuit in Mid Vermont Christian School v. Saunders ruled in favor of a Christian private school in Vermont which had been suspended from state extracurricular competitions after it refuses to allow its girls basketball team to play against a team with a transgender athlete. The school averred that playing such a game would force it to affirm that transgender girls are girls; the relevant Vermont agency decided this was discriminatory and expelled the school. The court, in turn, concluded that Vermont's actions evinced hostility to the school's religious views and thereby violated the First Amendment.
There are some complex factual issues in this case. But there are aspects of the court's opinion that I think have to be wrong, in terms of how it treats the question of "hostility toward the school’s religious beliefs." To put the matter bluntly: people (and the government) are allowed to have hostility towards a school's (or anybody's) "religious beliefs", and such hostility cannot itself be a First Amendment violation. What they cannot do is have hostility to these beliefs because they're religious, or hostility specifically tied to them being held by a particular religious group. But it cannot be the case that hostility to a given belief, where that hostility has nothing to do with religion and extends to any holder of the belief (religious or not), becomes unconstitutional religious hostility just because this particular holder of the belief believes it for religious reasons.
The court recognized that a "neutral" law or policy of "general applicability" does not become unconstitutional because it happens to impinge upon (even a sincere) religious belief. But it said, following Masterpiece Cakeshop, that a neutral law can still fail if it is not applied "in a manner neutral toward and tolerant of . . . religious beliefs." Fine, as far as it goes. But the way the court identifies what it means to be "intolerant" towards religious beliefs at times verges on suggesting that anytime one defends (as a general, neutral principle) a position that is (in the particular case at hand) antagonistic to a proffered religious belief, one is displaying unconstitutional "hostility" -- and if that's true, then it is functionally impossible for there to be a "neutral" law in the first place.
Let's take some examples. Suppose someone asks for a Kosher meal at a school event to substitute for the planned ham and cheese sandwich. The chef is derisive: "I can understand ethical objections to eating meat or other foods, but I'm not going to cook up a new meal just because your fantasy Sky God says so." That's hostility to religious belief -- the same (basic) belief is viewed disdainfully because it emanates from religion.
Compare a situation where someone explains "at our college, we prohibit interracial dating." You respond and say that is racist and discriminatory. They then say, "it's our religious belief." You respond "I don't care -- it's still racist and discriminatory." At one level, you are of course expressing "hostility toward the school's religious belief." At another level, your hostility has nothing to do with it being a religious belief; an it's a hostility you are entirely entitled to hold. The First Amendment simply cannot mean that this sort of "hostility" is constitutionally problematic. If it were, then it would be impossible to defend a neutral and generally applicable rule against racial discrimination in any circumstance where someone wanted to racially discriminate for religious reasons, since the very act of explaining why the rule against racial discrimination is important would be reclassified as anti-religious antagonism.
So in the present case, the critical question ultimately should be whether the state's antagonism towards the anti-trans beliefs of Mid Vermont are due to those beliefs being religious, or whether the state is equally "intolerant" of those beliefs no matter who holds them, with the fact that Mid Vermont happened to be a religious believer being wholly incidental and irrelevant. As alluded to, there is some evidence in this case that points in the former direction (I think it's weak, but Masterpiece Cakeshop made a mountain out of a molehill of weak evidence of religious hostility that other minorities wish they could access). But my main problem with this opinion is that it strongly suggests that the First Amendment problem would be the same even if we were unambiguously in the latter camp.
Consider one of the critical excerpts, from how the Vermont agency explained why it did not find compelling Mid Vermont's complaint that playing with transgender athletes would "endorse" beliefs about gender it wished to reject:
Participating in an athletic contest does not signify a common belief with the opponent. Brigham Young University athletes do not compromise their Mormon faith—or endorse Catholicism—when they play Notre Dame. The act of playing together on a basketball court does not imply any approval of the values or beliefs of the opponent.
The court analyzed that passage thusly:
That statement did not just question Mid Vermont’s religious sincerity. It also attacked the validity of Mid Vermont’s objection. But “[a]n individual claiming violation of free exercise rights need only demonstrate that the beliefs professed are sincerely held and in the individual’s own scheme of things, religious.” That is because “courts should not inquire into the centrality of a litigant’s religious beliefs.” .... Put simply, the VPA may not impose discipline based on its view that Mid Vermont's religious objection was "wrong."
This is, I'm sorry to say, deeply confused analysis. The sincerity/validity divide goes to whether or not Mid Vermont's claim is actually a religious one, and it's absolutely correct that the state has no business telling Mid Vermont that it's claim is a "wrong" understanding of Christianity. But that's not what the state was doing. The state isn't saying that Mid Vermont's logic is wrong as a religious proposition, it's saying it's wrong as a general proposition. In that circumstance, of course the state is entitled to "impose discipline" because it thinks the objection was wrong. Vermont has a policy, Mid Vermont thinks that policy is wrong, Vermont thinks Mid Vermont's objection doesn't hold water and so continues to apply the policy. That's completely anodyne, and it doesn't change because Mid Vermont's objection stems from its sincere religious beliefs. Under the Court's logic, any time any actor raises any sincere religious objection to any policy, they must win automatically because the act of rejecting the objection would suggest the religious objection was "wrong". Again -- I can't stress this enough -- religious objections can be wrong, so long as the reasons the adjudicating body thinks they're wrong are not themselves based on religion or religious hostility.
One last note: there may be circumstances where a policy is genuinely neutral and generally applicable, and not motivated or applied with religious hostility, but should still contain exceptions for religious objectors. I won't comment on whether this case is one of them. I'll only say that such cases are not, for the most part, religious hostility cases, and the problem in those cases is not one of a lack of neutrality. The outcome of Mid Vermont can, I think, be debated, but the logic of it I think is severely misguided (and, it must be said, I think is primarily traceable to courts giving super-protected status to anti-LGBTQ ideologies in a manner they've very consciously rejected in the racial discrimination context).
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